1 The provisions relating to the disqualification on grounds of defection of members of legislature is contained in:
Ans: Tenth schedule of Constitution
2 Who summons the mettings of the Parliament?
Ans: President
3 The maximum no. of nominated members in Rajya Sabha at any given tiem can not exceed?
Ans: 12
4 An order of Court to directing a public authority to establish his entyitlement to hold the office is called:
Ans: Writ of Quo Warranto
5 In how many categories the Fundamental Duties as appearing in Article 51A have been presented?
Ans: 11
6 The election of Vice-President can be challegne before
Ans: Supreme Court
7 The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 came to effect in its etirety on
Ans: 15-04-1987
8 The word ‘Consumer’ has been defined in the C.P Act in:
Ans: Section 2(1)(d)
9 The word ‘Services’ has been defined in the C.P Act in:
Ans: Section 2(1) (o)
10 The word ‘Deficiency’ has been defined in the CP Act in
Ans: Section 2(1)(g)
11 In which of the following case it was held that the insurance company is not a consumer and hence, consumer complaint by it is not maintainable:
Ans: Savani Road Lines v Sundaram Textiles Ltd.
12 The consumer National Commission is a Court of
Ans: Both (A) &(B)
13 He limitation for filing a revision before consumer national commission is
Ans: 90 days
14 Working days and office hours of the Consumer National Commission shall be the same as that of the
Ans: Central Government
15 For the purposes of Consumer Protection Act, the workd ‘goods’ shall have the meaning:
Ans: As defined in the Sale of Goods Act
16 The age of Superannuation for everymember of the District Forum shall be
Ans: 65 years
17 Under which provision District Forum can order for making payment to consumer who are not party before it?
Ans: Section 14(hb) of the Act
18 A after loosing complaint before the District Forum filed First Appeal bofore State Commission which dismissed his appeal , the option available to A under the CP Act is
Ans: To file second appeal bofore National Commission
19 The maximum limit of cost imposed by consumer courts on account fo filling of frivolous or vexatious complaint is rupees
Ans: Ten thousand onl
20 The pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer District Forum is upt o rupees
Ans: 20 Lacs
21 The limitaion period for filling consumer complaint is 2 years: however consumer courts can cndone the delay in filing the complaint uder:
Ans: Secion 24(2) of the CP Act
22 Under the Right to information Act, Right to information is available to:
Ans: All persons residing in India
23 The Right to Information Act came into effect in two phases. The Second part came in effect on:
Ans: 12-10-2005
24 The provision of the Act giving ecemption to certain organizations /establishments from the application of this act is
Ans: Section 24
25 The ecemption granted to certain organizations /establishements from the application of RTI Act is
Ans: Subject to the exceptions of allegations of corruption and human right voilation
26 The word information under the RTI Act means:
Ans: All of these
27 Under the RTI Act, a person making request for inspection of a record
Ans:
28 Under the RTI Act, the provision relating to third party information is:
Ans: Section 11
29 Apart from the ecemptions mentioned in secion 8 of the RTI Act, the CPIO is empowered to reject a request for information sought under the act, on the ground of
Ans: Copyright of the informatio being veseted in aperson other than state
30 The State Chief Information Commissioner or the State information Commissioner can be removed by the
Ans: governor of the State
31 The jurisdiction of Courts in respect of any orde made under Te RTI Act is barred under
Ans : Section B
32 High Court in relation to the Andaman and Nicobar island means
And: High Court in Kolkatta
33 Under CrPC Judgment means
Ans: Statement given by the judge on the ground of a decree or order
34 Foreign Court under CPC means
Ans: A Court situated outside Inida not established or continued by the authority of Cenral Government.
35 Legal Representative Court means means and includes
Ans: A person who in law represent the estate of a deceased person.
36 Prescribed in CPC means
Ans: Prescribed by rules
37 The Code of Civil Procedure is intended to:-
Ans: Consolidate and amend the laws relating to Cours of Civil Judicature
38 The Code of Civil Procedure is in the nature of
Ans: Both Procedural law and Substantive law
39 Thw word Decree-hoder has been defined i:
Ans: In sub section 3 of Section 2 of CPC
40 The word order has been defined
Ans: In sub section 14 of Section 2 of CPC
41 Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir, in which area, CPC does not apply
Ans: Tribal areas
42 A proclamation under section 82 of CrPC can be issued
Ans: All the above
43 If the prperty ordered to be attahced is a debt or other moveable property, the attachment u/s 83 CrPC shall be made
Ans: All the above
44 A person is declared proclaied Offencer
Ans: Under section 82 CrPC
45 Order for release or restoreation of Property is made
Ans: Under Section 85 CrPC
46 Objection to attachment of Property can be filed
Ans: Under section 84 CrPC
47 Procedings under section 82 CrPC
Ans: Can be issued only afte issuance of warrant of arrent
48 Attachemnt Orders of propery u/s 83 CrPC is issued
Ans: In relation to the propery of absconder
49 The powers of receiver in respect of an attached property u/s 83 CrPC
Ans: Shall be he same as of those appointed unser CPC.
50 Th provision of claiming sale proceess or attached property is provided
Ans: Under section 85 of CrPC
51 The orders for attachment of Property u/s 83 CrPC is passed by
Ans: The court which has issued roclamation r/s 82 CrPC
52 The proclamation of person absoconding shall be published
Ans: Both (A) & (B)
53 The order of attachement u/s 83 CrPC
Ans: Has to be subsequent to proclamation u/s 82 CrPC
54 The minimum time to be given for appearance u/s 82 CrPC is
Ans: 30 days
55 The Provisions relating to proclamation and attachment is contained
Ans: In chapter VI of IPC
56 A person becomes Proclaimed Offender
Ans: Upon declaration by the Court
57 The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 des not apply to
Ans: All the above
58 Evidence may be given of
Ans: Both
59 Facts which are effect of facts in issue are relevant
Ans: Under section 5 of Evidence Act
60 Conduct of any party is relevant
Ans: Under section 8 of Evidence Act
61 Conduct of any party in Evidence Act
Ans: Does not include his statements
62 The range of facts on which evidence may be given is
Ans:
63 Facts which though not in issue but are inseparably connected to it are relevant
Ans: Under section 6 of Evidenc Act
64 Provision relating to relevancy of facts are contained in
Ans: Chapter II of Evidence Act
65 In a trial of murder of B by A, the fact that A had murdered C was in the knowledge of B and that B had tried to extort money from A by threatening to make his knowledge public, are relevant Ans: Under section 8 of Evidenc Act
66 Subsequent conduct of any agent of any party may become relevant
Ans: Under section 8 of Evidenc Act
67 A person is not entitled to give evidence of fact which he is disentitled by any provision of law for the time being in force
Ans: Under section 5 of Evidenc Act
68 In a trial of murder of B by A, the marks on the ground produced by a struggle near the place where dead body of B was recovred are relevant
Ans: Under section 7 of Evidenc Act
69 A is accused of murder of B by beating, whatever was said by B shortly before beating, is a relevant fact
Ans: Under section 6 of Evidenc Act
70 A is accused of a crive, the fact that after the commission of the crime he was in prssession of the property acquired by the crime, are relevant facts
Ans: Under section 8 of Evidenc Act
71 The question is whether S was robbed. The fact that soon afte the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence, are relacant
Ans: Under secion 8 of the Evidence Act
72 The question is whether certain goods ordered from B were delivered to A. The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively, Each delivery is a relavant fact:
Ans: Under Section 6 of the Evidence Act
73 Evidence may be given
Ans: Both
74 The question is whether A robbed B, The facts that, soon before robbery B went to fair with monery and showed it to third persons, are relevant
Ans: Ans: Under Section 7 of the Evidence Act
75 A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which prperty is destroyed and goals are broken open. The occurrences of these facts are relevant facts, though A may not have been present at all of them
Ans: Ans: Under Section 6 of the Evidence Act
76 A is accused of an offence. The facts that, before the time of alleged crime, A provided evidence which would tend to give facts of the case an appearance favourable to himself, are relavant
Ans: Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act
77 A is accused of killing B by poisoning. The knowledge of habits of B, which afforded opportunity for administration of poison, are relevant
Ans: Ans: Under Section 7 of the Evidence Act
78 The questions is whether certain document is will of A. The fact that not long before the date of alleged will, he consulted advocates in reference to appplicable laws in making of will is relevant
Ans: Ans: Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act
79 The question is whether A was ravished. The Facts that after the incident a complaint was made by her giving details of the circumstance, are relevant
Ans: Ans: Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act
80 A is tried for the murder of B by beating him with a rod in a temple with the intention of causing his death, In the trial
Ans: Both are fact in issue
81 Facts which are part of same transation though not happened at the same time and place
Ans: Are relevant under Section 6 of the Evidence Act
82 Unless the conrary appears from the context, works importing singular number include the plural number an vice-versa, has been said in
Ans: Section 9 IPC
83 The word A will has been defined in
Ans: Section 31 IPC
84 The word offence has been defined
Ans: Under Section 40 IPC
85 The word Death has been defined in
Ans: Under section 46 IPC
86 The word injury as defined in IPC denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person
Ans: Both(A) & (B)
87 Section 34 of IPC
Ans: Is rule of evidence
88 The limit for ammount of fine has been provided in
Ans: Section 63 IPC
89 Which of the following is document under IPC
Ans: All the above
90 Section 41 of IPC defines the word
Ans: Special Law
91 Section 28 o IPC defines the word
Ans: Counterfeit
92 The unlawful bidding for property by a public servant is an offence
Ans: Under section 169 IPC
93 The framing of an incorrect document with intent to cause injury is an offence
Ans: Under section 167 IPC
94 The word Government has been defined
Ans: In section 17 of IPC
95 At present, how many categorizations has been provided in section 21 of IPC for a person to become Public Servant
Ans: Twelve
96 Refusing to answer public servant authorized to question is punishable
Ans: Under secion 179 of IPC
97 Refusing to sign statement made by oneself on the asking of a legally competent public servant is punishable:
Ans: Under section 180 of IPC
98 Giving false information with intend to cause public servant to use his lawful power to the injury of another person is
Ans: Non cognizable offence
99 Ommission to assist public servant when Bound by law ot give assistance is punishable
Ans: Under section 187 of IPC
100 Threat of injury to induce persson to refrain from applying for protection of public servant is punishable:
Ans: Under section 190 of IPC
101 Breach of contract to supply wants of helpless person is punishable
Ans: Under section 491 of IPC
102 Criminal breach of contracts of service is punishable under
Ans: Chapter XIX of IPC
103 Under secio 73 IPC a convict is put to solitary cofinement
Ans: By the court convictin him for the offence
104 The offence of furnishing false information to a public servant under section 177 IPC is
Ans: Non-Cognizable and Non-Compoundable
105 Obstructing sale of property offered for sale by authority of public servant is punishable
Ans: Under section 184 of IPC
106 In IPC the word Life has been defined in
Ans: Sectio 45
107 The word Harbour has been defined in IPC
Ans: In section 52-A
108 A intntionally causes B’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give B food, and partly by beating B
Ans:
109 The word Vessel has been defined inIPC
Ans: In section 48
110 The word illegal as per section 43 IPC is applicable to everything which
Ans: Both (A) & (B)
111 Provision for commutation of death sentence has been provided
Ans: In sectin 54 of IPC
112 Which section of IPC provides for terminatin of imprisonment on payment of fine, I imprisonment was in default of payment of fine?
Ans: In section 68 of IPC
113 Which sectin of IPC provides that if some act is done by the accused person in furtharance of common intention of his co-occused, he is equally liable like hi co-accused.
Ans: 34
114 A public servant disobeying law with intent to cause injury to any person shall be punished
Ans: Under secitn 166 IPC
115 Non-attendance in person or by an agent in obedience to a lawful order from public servant is punishable
Ans: Under secion 174 of IPC
116 The word Judge has been defined
Ans: In section 19 of IPC
117 Which of the following describe about the Person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state shall not to be citizen of India
Ans: Article 9
118 In which case it was held by the Supreme Court that ‘ Right to Life does not include right to die “
Ans: B Gian Kaur V State of Punjab
119 In Which case it was held by the Supreme court that “ Harmony and balance in fundamental rights and directive principles is the basic feature of Indian Constitution
Ans: In Re : Keshwananda Bharti
120 Which of the following case the issue of nationalization of banks was examined by the Supreme Court ?
Ans:
121 Fundamental Rights are Judicially enforceable under
Ans: Both A & B
122 The appointment of district Judges has been provided in
Ans: Article 233
123 Which provision of constitution says that law declared by supreme court shall be binding on all courts
Ans: Article 141
124 The original Jurisdiction of the Supreme court has been provided in ?
Ans: Article 131
125 Fundamental Duties were inserted in the constitution by
Ans: Forty Second Amendment
126 Under the constitution who is the chairman of the council of states ?
Ans: Vice President
127 Right to Property under Art 300 was inserted by
Ans: Forty Fourth amendment
128 The administration of Union territories is vested with president of India Under
Ans: Art 239
129 Functions of Public service commissions are provided in
Ans: Under Art 320 of Constitution
130 High courts to be courts of Record as per
Ans: Art 215 of Constitution
131 Power of President to grant pardons remit or commute sentences etc is given in
Ans: Art 72
132 Indian Constitution reserves the residuary powers to
Ans: Union
133 How many types of emergency has been envisaged in Indian Constitution
Ans: Three
134 Under which article of Indian constitution Parliament can legislate on any subject in the state list
Ans: Article 249
135 The members of Union Public service commission are appointed by
Ans: The President
136 Art 16 (4) is not in the nature of exception to Art 16 (1) was observed by the Supreme court in
Ans: Indira Sawhney V UOI
137 Fisheries is included in which list
Ans: Union List
138 Registration of Births and deaths is included in which list ?
Ans:
139 Members of Anglo Indian Community are nominated to the House of people under
Ans: Article 333
140 Which article has abolished “ Untouchability “ ?
Ans: Article 17
141 Which article provides for creation of “Uniform Civil Code “
Ans: Article 44
142 Which of the following is not constitutional Post
Ans: Chairman UPSC
143 If a directive principles of state policy is infringed
Ans: There is no remedy by judicial proceedings
144 Society for un aided schools of Rajasthan V Union of India & Ors is a recent case dealing with
Ans: Constitutional Validity of enforcement of EWS seat reservation in private schools
145 The framers of the constitution borrowed the concept of Directive principles from
Ans: Constitution of Ireland
146 The power of the president of India to issue an Ordinance is
Ans: Legislative Power
147 Power of declaring castes/tribes as scheduled caste/scheduled tribe is vested with
Ans: Parliament
148 The borrowing by the government of India from consolidated fund of India has been provided in
Ans: Art 292
149 The fourth schedule of the constitution contains
Ans: Allocation of seats to states and union territories in the council states
150 National Emergency can be declared by the president
Ans: on the recommendation of the council ministers
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